Computer Operator Model Question Set - 1
1. An area of a computer that temporarily holds data waiting to be processed is ……………..
- A) CPU
- B) Memory
- C) Storage
- D) File
Correct Answer: B) Memory
Explanation: Memory (RAM) temporarily holds data that the CPU processes, unlike storage, which is for long-term data retention.
2. Hard disk can be used as ………………
- A) Input device
- B) Output device
- C) Storage device
- D) All of the above
Correct Answer: C) Storage device
Explanation: A hard disk is primarily a storage device for long-term data retention, not an input or output device.
3. Unicode standard is ………………
- A) Software
- B) Font
- C) Character encoding system
- D) Keyboard layout
Correct Answer: C) Character encoding system
Explanation: Unicode is a standard for encoding characters to support text in multiple languages and scripts.
4. A fault in a computer program which prevents it-from working correctly is known as
- A) Boot
- B) Bug
- C) Biff
- D) Strap
Correct Answer: B) Bug
Explanation: A bug is an error or fault in a program that causes it to malfunction.
5. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known as the:
- A) Digital divide
- B) Internet divide
- C) Web divide
- D) E-illiteracy
Correct Answer: A) Digital divide
Explanation: The digital divide refers to the gap between those with and without access to digital technology.
6. Cache Memory ………………
- A) Helps to store more data in hard disk
- B) Placed between main memory and microprocessor
- C) Stores data permanently
- D) Holds last time visited web site only
Correct Answer: B) Placed between main memory and microprocessor
Explanation: Cache memory is a high-speed memory located between the CPU and main memory to speed up data access.
7. Which one of the following printers is suitable for printing sprocket fed carbon copies?
- A) Laser
- B) Dot matrix
- C) Ink-Jet
- D) Drum
Correct Answer: B) Dot matrix
Explanation: Dot matrix printers use continuous sprocket-fed paper and impact printing, ideal for carbon copies.
8. Which tool in Windows XP Home loaded by default can you use to back up essential system files?
- A) Emergency Repair Disk
- B) Backup and Recovery Wizard
- C) System Restore
- D) Recovery Console
Correct Answer: C) System Restore
Explanation: System Restore, included by default in Windows XP Home, backs up essential system files for recovery.
9. With respect to a network interface card, the term 10/100 refers to
- A) Protocol speed
- B) A fiber speed
- C) Megabits per seconds
- D) Minimum and maximum server speed
Correct Answer: C) Megabits per seconds
Explanation: 10/100 refers to network speeds of 10 or 100 megabits per second for a network interface card.
10. Typically, how many type III PC cards can you insert in a laptop
- A) 1
- B) 2
- C) 3
- D) 4
Correct Answer: A) 1
Explanation: Type III PC cards are thicker, and most laptops have one Type III slot or two Type II slots, accommodating one Type III card.
11. The Video devices are connected to ……………… BUS.
- A) PCI
- B) USB
- C) HDMI
- D) None of the above
Correct Answer: A) PCI
Explanation: Video devices, like graphics cards, typically connect to the PCI (or PCIe) bus for high-speed data transfer.
12. Upgrading the BIOS is also known as ………………
- A) UROMing
- B) Smoothing
- C) Flashing
- D) Updating
Correct Answer: C) Flashing
Explanation: Upgrading the BIOS involves "flashing," which updates the firmware stored in the BIOS chip.
13. Which of the following statements in regard to directories is false?
- A) Directories can be created inside directories
- B) The root directory is always at the highest level
- C) Directories can be renamed
- D) Directories cannot be renamed
Correct Answer: D) Directories cannot be renamed
Explanation: Directories can be renamed in most operating systems, making this statement false.
14. In windows, start button is used to
- A) Run applications
- B) Device setting
- C) Turn off the system
- D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: The Start button in Windows provides access to run applications, adjust settings, and shut down the system.
15. Which one of the following is a shortcut commonly used to switch between programs in windows system?
- A) Alt+Shift
- B) Alt+Tab
- C) Ctrl+Shift
- D) Ctrl+Tab
Correct Answer: B) Alt+Tab
Explanation: Alt+Tab is the standard Windows shortcut to switch between open programs or windows.
16. Before we store data into a disk it must be divided into sectors and from where the disk controller can read and write. This is known as
- A) Low-level formatting
- B) Fragmenting
- C) High-level formatting
- D) Portioning disk
Correct Answer: A) Low-level formatting
Explanation: Low-level formatting divides a disk into sectors, enabling the disk controller to read and write data.
17. Windows displays various options to shut down. Which is suitable at the end of day?
- A) Shut Down
- B) Restart
- C) Sleep
- D) Hibernate
Correct Answer: A) Shut Down
Explanation: Shut Down fully powers off the system, ideal for the end of the day to save energy.
18. Maximum RAM supported by a 32 bit operating system is ………………
- A) 2 GB
- B) 3 GB
- C) 4 GB
- D) 5 GB
Correct Answer: C) 4 GB
Explanation: A 32-bit operating system can address up to 4 GB of RAM due to its memory addressing limitations.
19. A communication processor that connects dissimilar networks by providing the translation from one set of protocol to another is ………………
- A) Bridge
- B) Gateway
- C) Router
- D) Modem
Correct Answer: B) Gateway
Explanation: A gateway translates protocols to connect dissimilar networks, unlike routers or modems.
20. The topology with highest reliability is:
- A) Bus topology
- B) Star topology
- C) Ring topology
- D) Mesh topology
Correct Answer: D) Mesh topology
Explanation: Mesh topology is highly reliable due to multiple connections, ensuring data can reroute if one link fails.
21. What is the most important piece of information needed to connect to a specific wireless network?
- A) Channel
- B) MAC address
- C) SSID
- D) Administrator password
Correct Answer: C) SSID
Explanation: The SSID (Service Set Identifier) is the network name required to identify and connect to a specific wireless network.
22. Which technology has the fastest data transfer rate?
- A) 802.11a
- B) 802.11b
- C) 802.11g
- D) 802.11n
Correct Answer: D) 802.11n
Explanation: 802.11n offers the fastest data transfer rate among the options, up to 600 Mbps, compared to 54 Mbps for 802.11a/g and 11 Mbps for 802.11b.
23. Which of the following cable types is not affected by EMI (electromagnetic interference) but required specialized to install?
- A) Cat 6
- B) STP
- C) Fiber optic
- D) Coaxial
Correct Answer: C) Fiber optic
Explanation: Fiber optic cables use light, making them immune to EMI, but they require specialized installation due to their fragility and precision.
24. Which of the following is the default port of HTTPS?
- A) Port 25
- B) Port 80
- C) Port 143
- D) Port 443
Correct Answer: D) Port 443
Explanation: HTTPS uses port 443 by default for secure web communication.
25. The auto complete feature
- A) Checks the style of the documents
- B) Checks the readability of the document
- C) Checks the spelling in the document
- D) None of the above
Correct Answer: D) None of the above
Explanation: Autocomplete suggests text or data entries, not style, readability, or spelling checks.
26. What are inserted as cross-reference in word?
- A) Placeholders
- B) Bookmarks
- C) Objects
- D) Word Fields
Correct Answer: D) Word Fields
Explanation: Cross-references in MS Word are implemented using Word Fields, which link to specific document elements like headings or bookmarks.
27. What is gutter margin?
- A) Margin that is added to the left margin when printing
- B) Margin that is added to right margin when printing
- C) Margin that is added to the binding side of page when printing
- D) Margin that is added to the outside of the page when printing
Correct Answer: C) Margin that is added to the binding side of page when printing
Explanation: The gutter margin is extra space added to the binding side to ensure text isn’t obscured when a document is bound.
28. Ctrl + H
- A) Open Find and Replace Dialog box with activating Replace Tab
- B) Open Format Dialog box activating Insert Hyper Link Tab
- C) Open Insert Dialog box activating Insert Hyper Link Tab
- D) Open Insert Hyper Link dialog box
Correct Answer: A) Open Find and Replace Dialog box with activating Replace Tab
Explanation: Ctrl + H opens the Find and Replace dialog box in MS Word, with the Replace tab active.
29. Which language does MS-Word use to create Macros?
- A) Visual C++
- B) Visual Basic
- C) FoxPro
- D) Access
Correct Answer: B) Visual Basic
Explanation: MS Word uses Visual Basic for Applications (VBA) to create macros for automation.
30. When a formatted number does not fit within a cell, it displays ……..
- A) #####
- B) #DIV/O
- C) #DIV@
- D) None of the above
Correct Answer: A) #####
Explanation: In Excel, ##### is displayed when a formatted number is too wide for the cell.
31. To Insert New Comment in Excel sheet one must use
- A) F2
- B) F3
- C) SHIFT+F2
- D) SHIFT+F3
Correct Answer: C) SHIFT+F2
Explanation: Shift+F2 is the shortcut to insert a comment in an Excel cell.
32. In MS Excel, getting data from a cell located in a different sheet is called
- A) Accessing
- B) Referencing
- C) Updating
- D) Functioning
Correct Answer: B) Referencing
Explanation: Referencing is the process of retrieving data from a cell in another sheet using formulas or cell references.
33. In MS Excel to select multiple non-adjacent cells in a worksheet you will click them holding
- A) CTRL
- B) ALT
- C) Shift
- D) Ctrl + Shift
Correct Answer: A) CTRL
Explanation: Holding Ctrl allows you to select multiple non-adjacent cells in Excel by clicking each one.
34. Which of the following is an absolute cell reference?
- A) $A$1
- B) &A1$
- C) #AS1
- D) #A1#
Correct Answer: A) $A$1
Explanation: An absolute cell reference in Excel uses $ signs (e.g., $A$1) to lock both the column and row.
35. How can the slide show be repeated continuously?
- A) Loop continuously until ‘Esc’
- B) Repeat continuously
- C) Loop more
- D) None of the above
Correct Answer: A) Loop continuously until ‘Esc’
Explanation: In PowerPoint, the option to "Loop continuously until ‘Esc’" allows the slideshow to repeat until manually stopped.
36. From where we can set the timing for each object?
- A) Slide show, custom transition
- B) Slide show, slide transition
- C) Slide show, custom animation
- D) View, Slide sorter
Correct Answer: C) Slide show, custom animation
Explanation: In PowerPoint, timings for objects are set via the Custom Animation (or Animation Pane) in the Slide Show menu.
37. Dynamic web page
- A) Is same every time whenever it displays
- B) Generates on demand by a program or a request from browser
- C) Both a. and b.
- D) None of the above
Correct Answer: B) Generates on demand by a program or a request from browser
Explanation: Dynamic web pages are generated in real-time based on user requests or programs, unlike static pages.
38. What is a web browser?
- A) A program that can displays a web page
- B) A program used to view html documents
- C) It enables user to access the internet
- D) All of the above resources of internet
Correct Answer: D) All of the above resources of internet
Explanation: A web browser displays web pages, views HTML documents, and enables internet access, covering all options.
39. What is the correct HTML for inserting an image?
- A) <umage src =”image.gif” alt = Myimage”/>
- B) <img href =”image.gif alt = “Myimage”/>
- C) <img src = “image.gif” alt = “Myimage”/>
- D) <img alt = “Myimage”>image = “gif</img>
Correct Answer: C) <img src = “image.gif” alt = “Myimage”/>
Explanation: The correct HTML for an image uses the <img> tag with src and alt attributes, and a self-closing slash for XHTML compatibility.
40. How can you create an e-mail link?
- A) <mail href = “a@b”>
- B) <mail>a@b</mail>
- C) <a href = “a@b”>
- D) <a href= mailto:a@b.com>
Correct Answer: D) <a href= mailto:a@b.com>
Explanation: An email link uses the <a> tag with the mailto: protocol followed by the email address.
41. Which of the following is not a database application?
- A) PostgreSQL
- B) MySQL
- C) IBM DB2
- D) Microsoft DPM
Correct Answer: D) Microsoft DPM
Explanation: Microsoft DPM (Data Protection Manager) is a backup and recovery tool, not a database application like PostgreSQL, MySQL, or IBM DB2.
42. Data Manipulation Language (DML) is not to
- A) Create information table in the Database
- B) Insert a new information into the Database
- C) Deletion of information into the Database
- D) Modification of information into the Database
Correct Answer: A) Create information table in the Database
Explanation: DML handles data manipulation (insert, delete, update), while creating tables is a DDL (Data Definition Language) task.
43. ………………… refers to the correctness and completeness of the data in a database
- A) Data Security
- B) Data constraint
- C) Data Independence
- D) Data Integrity
Correct Answer: D) Data Integrity
Explanation: Data integrity ensures the accuracy, completeness, and reliability of data in a database.
44. A command to delete table from a SQL database
- A) Drop table from <table name>
- B) Drop table <table name>
- C) Drop *from <table name>
- D) Delete table <table name>
Correct Answer: B) Drop table <table name>
Explanation: The SQL command to delete a table is DROP TABLE followed by the table name.
45. Inaccurate requirements, coding errors, and faulty documentation highlight the need for robust ………………..
- A) Quality assurance
- B) Software Engineering
- C) Object oriented analysis
- D) Training
Correct Answer: A) Quality assurance
Explanation: Quality assurance focuses on preventing and detecting errors in requirements, coding, and documentation.
46. In Which phase of the SDLC are information needs identified?
- A) Preliminary investigation
- B) System analysis
- C) Systems design
- D) Systems development
Correct Answer: B) System analysis
Explanation: The system analysis phase identifies the information needs and requirements for the system.
47. A good specification should be
- A) Unambiguous
- B) Distinctly specific
- C) Functional
- D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: A good specification must be unambiguous, specific, and functional to ensure clarity and usability.
48. Agency responsible for Licensing Certifying Authorities (CAs) under the Electronic Transaction Act and exercising supervision over their activities
- A) OCCA
- B) NITC
- C) HLCIT
- D) DOIT
Correct Answer: B) NITC
Explanation: The National Information Technology Center (NITC) in Nepal oversees licensing and supervision of Certifying Authorities under the Electronic Transaction Act.
49. GIDC stands for
- A) Government Integrated document Center
- B) Government Integrated Database Center
- C) Government Integrated Data Center
- D) Government Integrate’ Data Collection
Correct Answer: C) Government Integrated Data Center
Explanation: GIDC stands for Government Integrated Data Center, a centralized facility for government data management.
50. Latest CIVIL service act amendment was done in the year
- A) 2072
- B) 2071
- C) 2069
- D) 2068
Correct Answer: A) 2072
Explanation: The latest amendment to the Nepal Civil Service Act was made in 2072 BS (2015 AD), based on available records.