Computer Operator Questions and Answers SET - 7 | MCQs | PSC

MCQs for Computer Science and Software Engineering

Computer Operator Model Question Set - 7

1. The simplest approach to introducing redundancy to duplicate every disk is called
a. Mirroring
b. Imaging
c. Copying
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: a. Mirroring
Disk mirroring, often used in RAID 1, duplicates data across disks to ensure redundancy and fault tolerance.
2. Which of the following is not a recovery technique?
a. Deferred update
b. Immediate update
c. Two-phase commit
d. Recovery management
Correct Answer: c. Two-phase commit
Two-phase commit is a transaction protocol to ensure consistency, not a recovery technique like deferred or immediate updates.
3. There are ... types of indexes in SQL server.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Correct Answer: b. 2
SQL Server supports two main index types: clustered and non-clustered, which optimize data retrieval.
4. Which one of the following can not be a primary key in DBMS?
a. Office ID
b. Identification Number
c. City Name
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: c. City Name
A primary key must be unique and not null; city names can be duplicated and are not suitable as primary keys.
5. Which of the following is also called an Inner Join?
a. Self Join
b. Equi Join
c. Non-Equijoin
d. None of the above
Correct Answer: b. Equi Join
An equi join uses equality comparisons in the join condition and is a type of inner join.
6. What do you mean by "ROLLBACK" in a database?
a. DDL
b. DML
c. DCL
d. TCL
Correct Answer: d. TCL
ROLLBACK is a Transaction Control Language (TCL) command used to undo changes in a transaction.
7. ... forms are based on the concept of functional dependency.
a. 1NF
b. 2NF
c. 3NF
d. BCNF
Correct Answer: d. BCNF
BCNF (Boyce-Codd Normal Form) eliminates anomalies based on functional dependencies, stricter than 1NF, 2NF, and 3NF.
8. Who designs and implements database structures?
a. Programmers
b. Project managers
c. Database designers
d. Database administrators
Correct Answer: c. Database designers
Database designers create and implement database structures, while administrators manage and maintain them.
9. Which of the following is the first step in SDLC framework?
a. Feasibility study
b. Requirement gathering
c. Communication
d. System analysis
Correct Answer: a. Feasibility study
The feasibility study assesses the viability of a project, making it the first step in the SDLC.
10. The agile software development model is built based on ...
a. Incremental development
b. Linear development
c. Interactive development
d. Both A and C
Correct Answer: d. Both A and C
Agile relies on incremental (iterative) and interactive (collaborative) development for flexibility and rapid delivery.
11. Which of the following is the first step in the software development life cycle?
a. Coding
b. Preliminary investigation and analysis
c. System testing
d. System design
Correct Answer: b. Preliminary investigation and analysis
Preliminary investigation and analysis identify project goals and constraints, initiating the SDLC.
12. The entity relationship set is represented in E-R diagram as
a. Double diamonds
b. Undivided rectangles
c. Dashed lines
d. Diamond
Correct Answer: d. Diamond
In E-R diagrams, relationships are represented by diamond shapes connecting entities.
13. Graphical notation to describe the data flow between various processes of a system is called
a. Entity Relation Diagram
b. Data Analysis Diagram
c. Data Flow Diagram
d. State Diagram
Correct Answer: c. Data Flow Diagram
Data Flow Diagrams (DFDs) visually represent data movement between processes in a system.
14. Which of the following process improvement model?
a. CMMI
b. Agile
c. Prototyping
d. V model
Correct Answer: a. CMMI
CMMI (Capability Maturity Model Integration) is a process improvement framework, unlike Agile or V model, which are development methodologies.
15. A cost performance index (CPI) of 0.89 means
a. At this time, we expect the total project to cost 89 percent more than planned
b. When the project is completed, we will have spent 89 percent more than planned
c. The project is only progressing at 89 percent of the rate planned
d. The project is only getting 89 paisa out of every rupees invested
Correct Answer: d. The project is only getting 89 paisa out of every rupees invested
CPI of 0.89 indicates that for every rupee spent, the project earns 89 paisa of value, showing cost inefficiency.
16. Identify the sub-process of process improvement.
a. Process introduction
b. Process analysis
c. De-processification
d. None of the above
Correct Answer: b. Process analysis
Process analysis evaluates existing processes to identify areas for improvement, a key sub-process in process improvement.
17. A horizontal bar chart that shows project tasks against a calendar is called
a. Goal
b. Milestone
c. Deliverable
d. Gantt chart
Correct Answer: d. Gantt chart
A Gantt chart visually represents project tasks and their durations on a timeline using horizontal bars.
18. What is the first step in project planning?
a. Identify the project constraints
b. Determine the budget
c. Define a team organizational model
d. Establish the objectives and scope.
Correct Answer: d. Establish the objectives and scope.
Defining objectives and scope sets the foundation for project planning, guiding all subsequent steps.
19. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?
a. Uncertainty and Loss
b. Certainty and Prom
c. Project Deadline and Budget
d. Staff Size and Budget
Correct Answer: a. Uncertainty and Loss
Software risks are characterized by uncertainty (likelihood of occurrence) and potential loss (impact).
20. Which of these is not one of the phase names defined by the Unified Process model for software development?
a. Inception phase
b. Elaboration phase
c. Construction phase
d. Validation phase
Correct Answer: d. Validation phase
The Unified Process includes Inception, Elaboration, Construction, and Transition phases, not Validation.
21. Framework that encompasses a process set of methods and an array of tools is termed as
a. Software engineering
b. Telecommunication engineering
c. Hardware engineering
d. Civil Engineering
Correct Answer: a. Software engineering
Software engineering integrates processes, methods, and tools to develop software systematically.
22. Which of the following is not one of the three components in a decision support system?
a. Model
b. Communication
c. Data
d. Dialogue
Correct Answer: b. Communication
A decision support system comprises data, model, and dialogue components, not communication.
23. ... should plan well and execute perfectly the implementation of ERP.
a. System developers
b. Vendors
c. Top management
d. Middle level management
Correct Answer: c. Top management
Top management oversees ERP implementation, ensuring strategic alignment and resource allocation.
24. What are the four major areas that can be identified as being subjected to change in BPR?
a. Organization, Infrastructure, Resources, People
b. Technology, Finance, Machines, People
c. Organization, Technology, Strategy, People
d. Strategy, Technology, Methods, Organization
Correct Answer: c. Organization, Technology, Strategy, People
Business Process Reengineering (BPR) focuses on transforming organization, technology, strategy, and people.
25. A human order taker can be bypassed when using
a. an automation system
b. a management information system
c. a decision support system
d. a transaction processing system
Correct Answer: d. a transaction processing system
Transaction processing systems automate routine tasks like order taking, bypassing human intervention.
26. Buying a cinema ticket on a mobile phone is an example of ...
a. Decision making
b. B2B e-commerce
c. M-commerce
d. C2C e-commerce
Correct Answer: c. M-commerce
M-commerce (mobile commerce) involves transactions conducted via mobile devices, like buying tickets.
27. Processed data is called
a. Field
b. Information
c. Record
d. File
Correct Answer: b. Information
Processed data becomes information, which is meaningful and useful for decision-making.
28. Which topology of LAN uses circuit switching?
a. Ring
b. Star
c. Tree
d. Bus
Correct Answer: b. Star
Star topology can use circuit switching, where a dedicated path is established via a central switch.
29. Bluetooth is a type of radio wave information transmission system that is good for about
a. 30 feet
B. 30 yards
c. 30 miles
d. 300 miles
Correct Answer: a. 30 feet
Explanation: Bluetooth operates effectively within a range of about 30 feet (10 meters).
30. Each database system supporting ODBC> provides a/an
a. Modules
b. Interfaces
c. Library
d. Data dictionary
Correct Answer: b. Data dictionary
Explanation: ODBC-supporting systems provide a data dictionary to define and manage database metadata.
31. Most common type of a computer network is
a. PAN
b. LAN
c. b
d. a
Correct Answer: b. LAN
Explanation: LAN (Local Area Network) is the most common network type, connecting devices in a limited area like an office.
32. What is the advantage of on-line UPS over offline UPS?
a. Online
b. Supplies
c. Free
d. Works
Correct Answer: c. Free from change over and transition problem
Online UPS provides seamless power delivery, eliminating switchover issues present in offline UPS systems.
33. The convenient place to store contact information for quick retrieval in e-mail is
a. Address box
b. Message box
c. Address
d. Message
Correct Answer: c. Address book
The address book stores contact details for quick access in email applications.
34. The data link control portion of most LAN protocols in use today is based on
a. ANSI
b. IDDI
c. SDLC
d. HDLC
Correct Answer: d. HDLC
HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control) is the basis for data link control in many LAN protocols.
35. The use of technology to enhance learning process is called ... in education.
a. IT
b. Network Technology
c. Communication Technology
d. None of the above
Correct Answer: a. IT
Information Technology (IT) enhances learning through tools like e-learning platforms and digital resources.
36. ... evaluation helps to determine the extent to which ... has been achieved.
a. profit
b. loss
c. employees satisfaction
d. training objectives
Correct Answer: d. training objectives
Training evaluation assesses whether training objectives, such as skill improvement, are met.
37. Which of the following is not a method of individual training need identification?
a. Exit interview
b. Attitude survey
c. Work sample
d. Interview
Correct Answer: a. Exit interview
Exit interviews assess reasons for leaving, not training needs, unlike surveys or work samples.
38. Which of the following is not a method on the job training?
a. Job rotation
b. Supervision
c. Job instruction
d. Role playing
Correct Answer: d. Role playing
Role playing is an off-the-job training method, unlike job rotation or instruction, which occur on the job.
39. General training is related with
a. Conceptual
b. Development
c. Technical aspects
d. Human skills
Correct Answer: d. Human skills
General training focuses on human skills like communication and teamwork, applicable across roles.
40. An individual is likely to resist change, because of all the reasons given below except
a. uncertainty
b. concern over personal loss
c. increased productivity
d. belief that the change is not in the organization's best interest
Correct Answer: c. increased productivity
Increased productivity is a benefit, not a reason to resist change, unlike uncertainty or personal loss.
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